A local pastor mentioned this in his sermon, this past weekend, as he was going over the basic one sentence descriptions of some non-Christian religions such as Judaism, Islam, etc... And, he pointed out that Christianity's one sentence description was "Jesus is Lord." And he then began to affirm that Jesus needed to be Lord of every area of a person's life, both in actions and intent.
I agree that Jesus ought to have the preeminence in all things, but I'm not convinced that the statement that "If Jesus isn't Lord of ALL, He's NOT Lord at all" is true. At least not as the phrase is commonly meant to mean that if His lordship isn't evident in every area and intent of one's life, He isn't Lord at all.
Certainly Jesus is Lord. However, just because we don't see something subject to His authority doesn't mean that His authority over it won't be manifest in the future.
So, I question the wisdom of the phrase "If Jesus isn't Lord of ALL, He's NOT Lord at all."
- Hebrews 2:8 King James Version
- "....'Thou hast put all things in subjection under His feet.'
- But now we see not yet all things put under Him."