Dake Bible Discussion Board¿¿¿ If Jesus Isn't Lord of ALL, He's NOT Lord at All ???

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¿¿¿ If Jesus Isn't Lord of ALL, He's NOT Lord at All ???

Postby Spiritblade Disciple » Fri Jan 27, 2017 5:07 pm

It's often said that "If Jesus isn't Lord of ALL, He's NOT Lord at all."

A local pastor mentioned this in his sermon, this past weekend, as he was going over the basic one sentence descriptions of some non-Christian religions such as Judaism, Islam, etc... And, he pointed out that Christianity's one sentence description was "Jesus is Lord." And he then began to affirm that Jesus needed to be Lord of every area of a person's life, both in actions and intent.

I agree that Jesus ought to have the preeminence in all things, but I'm not convinced that the statement that "If Jesus isn't Lord of ALL, He's NOT Lord at all" is true. At least not as the phrase is commonly meant to mean that if His lordship isn't evident in every area and intent of one's life, He isn't Lord at all.

Certainly Jesus is Lord. However, just because we don't see something subject to His authority doesn't mean that His authority over it won't be manifest in the future.

So, I question the wisdom of the phrase "If Jesus isn't Lord of ALL, He's NOT Lord at all."

    Hebrews 2:8 King James Version
        "....'Thou hast put all things in subjection under His feet.'
      "For in that He put all in subjection under Him, He left nothing that is not put under Him.
        But now we see not yet all things put under Him."
So, is it correct to say that if Jesus' lordship isn't manifest in every action and intent of a person's life that He really isn't Lord at all, since He's not Lord of all? Or, would it be better to say that Jesus is Lord of all, whether we can see the manifestation of His lordship or not?



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