My friend, you do error. You do know there is a difference between adefinite article and indefinite. The Holy Spirit through the hands of the Apostles told them to write "Ho theos", so that it is clear to whom is being talked about. In your KJV and all english Bible, you don't know when "theos" is considered definite, even though i can, but as you can see there is ambiguity.scottae316 wrote: Actually, ὁ θεός would not be translated "THE GOD. "ὁ" would not be translated as it is a definite article and based on translation rules and context is not. So "ὁ θεός would be translated as God, not "THE GOD".
Let me say this: No man can break the Scripture that includes me. If you look at "ho theos" in its use in the NT,IN EACH AND EVERY CASE it used to refer to ONLY ONE Person, and that Person is THE FATHER of all, THE ONE GOD, THE Elohim(Theos) of Abraham, Issaac, and Jacob. In NO case is that term ever referred to JESUS the CHRIST.
If you think you can prove from the Bible that "Ho THEOS" refers to JESUS, then be my guest. I await the impossible.